R Sridharan Named Acting Chairman of SBI

R Sridharan will be taking over as Acting Chairman of the country’s largest lender State Bank of India from O P Bhatt, who superannuated today.

Sridharan, who currently serves as the Managing Director and Group Executive (Associates and Subsidiaries) at the bank will take over as Acting Chairman from April 1, according to a source close to the development.

What is it that makes soda water fizz?
Answer : Carbon Dioxide

Which star has collapsed into itself?
Answer : Black Hole

Which is the heaviest star?
Answer : HDE 269810 IN Magellanic Cloud

Which Australkian city includes the suburbs of Cottesloe and Subiaco?
Answer : Perth

What country produces Rioja wines?
Answer: Spain

Who was the favourite daughter of Shakespeare’s King Lear?
Answer : Cordelia

Which is the brightest star?
Answer: Sirius

Who discovered Oxygen in 1774?
Answer : Joseph Priestly

Name the author of A Town Like Alice
Answer : Nevil Shute

What disease is the Sabin Vaccine used to prevent?
Answer : Polio

Name the actor grandfather of Drew Barrymore.
Answer : John Barrymore

Who is the female host of the television show, Better Homes and Gardens?
Answer : Noni Hazlehurst

Which comedian once said, “A well-balanced person has a drink in each hand”?
Answer : Billy Connolly

How many Earth years does it take Pluto to orbit the sun?
Answer : 248

What name is given to the central part of a fleshy fruit, containing the seeds?
Answer : The core

Question: What letter appears to the right of Y on a keyboard?
Answer : U

HCL Infosystems has introduced three new ME tablets that run Google Android 2.2 Froyo. These tablets include two 7-inch models and one 10-inch model. One thing unique about these ME tablets is that they will come with HCL Touch functionality that will connect the users to the local content and HCL custom service, all at a touch of a single button. These three new HCL ME tablets are expected to available all across India in the price range of Rs. 14,990 and Rs. 32,990.

New HCL ME tablets are aimed at different consumers – the ME AE7 is aimed at economy users, ME AM7 for the mainstream users and the ME AP10A. All new ME tablets run Google Android 2.2 Froyo update and it doesn’t seem like all of them will get the Gingerbread update. Let’s take a look at each tablet.

ProductsPrices.com -Comprehensive information on all Products and Services.Compare Moblie phones,laptop prices and more…

Executive Jobs

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Floating Debt: Generally, any short-term debt, specifically, the part of the national debt that consists of short-term borrowing.Fringe benefits: Rewards for employment over and above the wager paid. e.g. goods at a discount, subsidized meals, arrangements, etc.

Fiscal Policy: that part of government policy which is concerned with raising revenue through taxation and deciding on the level and pattern of expenditure.

Fixed Costs: Costs which in the short run do not vary with outputs. These costs are borne even if no output is produced.

Asset: Anything of monetary value that is owned by a person. Assets include real property, personal property, and enforceable claims against others (including bank accounts, stocks, mutual funds, and so on)

Base year: In the construction of an index, the year from which the weights assigned to the different components of the index is drawn. It is conventional to set the value of an index in its base year equal to 100. Bear: An investor with a pessimistic market outlook; an investor who expects prices to fall and so sells now in order to buy later at a lower price. A Bear Market is one which is trending downwards or losing value.

Bid price: The highest price an investor is willing to pay for a stock.

Bill of exchange: A written, dated, and signed three-party instrument containing an unconditional order by a drawer that directs a drawee to pay a definite sum of money to a payee on demand or at a specified future date. Also known as a draft. It is the most commonly used financial instrument in international trade.

Bond: A certificate of debt (usually interest-bearing or discounted) that is issued by a government or corporation in order to raise money; the bond issuer is required to pay a fixed sum annually until maturity and then a fixed sum to repay the principal. Bonds guide.

Collateral security: Additional security a borrower supplies to obtain a loan.

Compound interest: Interest paid on the original principal and on interest accrued from time it became due.

Consumer Surplus is the difference between the price a consumer pays and what they were prepared to pay.

Direct tax: A tax that you pay directly, as opposed to indirect taxes, such as tariffs and business taxes. The income tax is a direct tax, as are property taxes. See also Indirect Tax.

Double taxation: Corporate earnings taxed at both the corporate level and again as a stockholder dividend

Exchange rate: The price of one currency stated in terms of another currency, when exchanged.

Inflation is the percentage increase in the prices of goods and services.

Repo rate: This is one of the credit management tools used by the Reserve Bank to regulate liquidity in South Africa (customer spending). The bank borrows money from the Reserve Bank to cover its shortfall. The Reserve Bank only makes a certain amount of money available and this determines the repo rate. If the bank requires more money than what is available, this will increase the repo rate – and vice versa.

Revenue expenditure: This is expenditure on recurring items, including the running of services and financing capital spending that is paid for by borrowing. This is meant for normal running of governments’ maintenance expenditures, interest payments, subsidies and transfers etc. It is current expenditure which does not result in the creation of assets. Grants given to State governments or other parties are also treated as revenue expenditure even if some of the grants may be meant for creating assets.

Subsidy : Financial assistance (often from the government) to a specific group of producers or consumers.

Who was the first Ramon Magsaysay Award winner from India

Ans : Acharya Vinoba Bhave

The first recipient of Gandhi Peace Prize was

Ans : Dr. Julius N. Nyerera

Nehru Award is instituted for

Ans : International understanding and peace

Magnifying glass was invented by

Ans : Roger Bacon

Polio vaccine was invented by

Ans : Jonas Edward Salk

Who discovered the Blood groups

Ans : Karl Landsteiner

Television was invented by

Ans : John L. Baird

Theory of relativity was explained by

Ans : Albert Einstein

Wireless Telegraph was invented by

Ans : Marconi

Incandescent lamp was invented by

Ans : Edison

• Dr. Manmohan Singh: Chairman, Planning Commission.
• Ms. Meira Kumar: Speaker, Lok Sabha.
• Mohammad Hamid Ansari: Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
• Mr. K. Rahman Khan: Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
• Mr. Gopinath Munde: Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.
• Mrs. Sushma Swaraj : Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha).
• Mr. Arun Jaitley: Leader of Opposition (Rajya Sabha).
• Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia: Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission.
• Mr. Navin Chawla: Chief Election Commissioner
• Mr. V. S. Sampath : Election Commissioner.
• Mr. S. Y. Qiuaishi : Election Commissioner.

• Mr. Vinod Rai : Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• Mr. K. M. Chandrasekhar: Cabinet Secretary.
• Mr. T. K. A. Nair : Principal Secretary to Prime Minister.
• Mr. Justice S. Ratnavel Pandian: Chairman, National Commission for Backward Classes.
• Ms. Shanta Sinha: Chairperson, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
• Dr. Buta Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
• Mr. Kunwar Singh: Chairman, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
• Prof. D. P. Agrawal: Chairman, UPSC.
• Dr. M. S. Swaminathan : Chairman, National Commission on Farmers.
• Mr. Shiv Shankar Menon: National Security Adviser and Special Adviser to PM (Internal Security).
• Mr. R.V. Raju : Director-General, National Investigation Agency (NIA).
• Mr. S. S. Khurana: Chairman, Railway Board.
• Mr. Vivek Kumar Agnihotri: Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha
• Mr. P. D. T. Achary : Secretary-General, Lok Sabha.
• Mr. Rajiv Mathur: Director, IB.
• Mr. Ashwani Kumar: Director, CBI.
• Mr. K. C. Verma: Director, Research and Analysis Wing.
• Mr. N .P. S. Aulakh: Director-General, NSG.
• Mr. A. S. Gill : Director-General, CRPF.
• Mr. M. L. Kumawat : Director-General, Border Security Force (BSF).
• Mr. Niraj Ranjan Das : Director-General, Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).
• Mr. Ranjit Sinha: Director-General, Railway Protection Force.
• Mr. Vikram Srivastava: Director-General, Indo-Tibetan Border Police.
• Mr. Gopal Sharma: Director-General, Sashastra Seema Bal.
• Vice-Admiral Anil Chopra: Director-General, Coast Guard.
• Lt. Gen. Avtar Singh: Director-General, Defence Intelligence Agency.
• Mr. Sukhadeo Thorat : Chairman, UGC.
• Mr. M. Natarajan : Scientific Adviser to Defence Minister and Secretary, Defence Research & Development Organisation.
• Dr. R. Chidambaram : Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government.
• Mr. K. Radhakrishnan: Chairman, Space Commission and ISRO.
• Mr. Srikumar Banerjee : Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, Dept. of Atomic Energy.
• Mr. N. K. Raghupathy : Chairman, SSC.
• Mr. Justice (Retd.) B. N. Kirpal: Chairman, National Forest Commission.
• Dr. Amrita Patel: Chairperson, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
• Lt. Gen. M. C. Badhani : Director-General, Border Roads Organisation.
• Dr. Vishwa Mohan Katoch : Director-General, Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Mr. D. K. Sikri : Registrar-General of India and Census Commissioner.
• Mr. A. R. Lakshmanan: Chairman, Law Commission.
• Mr. Duvvuri Subbarao : Governor, RBI.
• Mr. Justice G. N. Ray: Chairman, Press Council of India.
• Mr. Subroto Chattopadhyay : Chairman, Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC).
• Mr. N. B. Singh: Chairperson, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
• Mr. A. K. Singh: Chairman, Central Board of Excise & Customs.
• Justice Arijit Pasayat : Chairperson, Competition Appellate Tribunal
• Mr. S. K. Garg : CMD, NHPC.
• Mr. R. S. Sharma: CMD, ONGC.
• Mr. U. D. Choubey : CMD, GAIL.
• Mr. S. Behuria : Chairman, IOC.
• Mr. N. M. Borah: CMD, Oil India Ltd.
• Mr. Ashok Ganguly: Chairman, CBSE.
• Mr. C. B. Bhave: Chairman, Securities & Exchange Board of India.
• Mr. U. C. Sarangi: Chairman, NABARD.
• Mr. O. P. Bhat : Chairman, SBI.
• Mr. V. P. Shetty : Chairman, IDBI.
• Mr. S. Balasubramanian : Chairman, Company Law Board.
• Mr. Hardeep Singh Puri : India’s Permanent Representative to UN.
• Mr. T. S. Vijayan : Chairman, LIC
• Mr. A. K. Bajaj : Chairman, Central Water Commission.
• Ms. Girija Vyas : Chairperson, National Commission for Women.
• Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar: Chairman, 13th Finance Commission.
• Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar : Chairman, National Statistical Commission.
• Ms. Shafmila Tagore : Chairperson, Central Board of Film Certification.
• Ms. Anshu Vaish : Director-General, Archaeological Survey of India.
• Mr. Harsh Pati Singhania : President, FICCI.
• Mr. J. S. Sarma: Chairman, TRAI
• Mr. R. N. Das : Director, Enforcement Directorate.
• Mr. D. Swarup : Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority.
• Mr. Pratyush Sinha: Central Vigilance Commissioner.
• Mr. S. Banerjee: Director, Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Mr. Wajahat Habibullah : Information Commissioner.
• Mr. Suresh Kalmadi : President, Indian Olympic Association.
• Prof. Krishan Kumar: Director, NCERT.
• Mr. Venu Srinivasan: President, CII.
• Mr. Sam Pitroda : Chairman, National Knowledge Commission.
• Ms. Mrinal Pande : Chairman, Prasar Bharti Board.
• Mr. Ratan Tata : Chairman, Investment Commission.
• Mr. Ganesh Natarajan : Chairman, NASSCOM.
• Mr. Swati Piramal: President, ASSOCHAM.
• Mr. Om Puri : Chairman, National Film Development Corporation.
• Mr. Ravindra Kumar: Chairman, United News of India.
• Mr. N. Ravi : Chairman, PTI.
• Mr. Hormusji N. Cama: President, Indian Newspaper Society

Quantitative Analysis based Questions for BANK PO/MBA/BANK CLERK Exams-Answer the  below Questions  and  Test Your Quantitative Analysis Skill.

1. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent
(b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent
(d) 54.25 per cent

2. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm.
(b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm.
(d) 30 cm.

3. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 sq. cm.
(b) 10.95 sq. cm.
(c) 10 sq. cm
(d) 10.50 sq. cm

4. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3
(b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2
(d) 3:1:2

5. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero
(b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00
(d) Rs. 7.20

6. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500
(d) Rs. 620

7. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 140

8. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5
(b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5
(d) 8:12:15

9. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4
(b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3
(d) 6:4:3

10. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200
(b) 961
(c) 744
(d) 612

11. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 64 years.

12. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of
some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
(a) 20 liters.
(b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters.
(d) 80 liters.

13. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 120 metres
(C) 150 meters
(D) 180 meters
Ans (A)

14. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600
(b) 3600
(c) 6400
(d) 14400

15. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215
(b) 220
(c) 225
(d) 235

16.The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are -
(a) 55, 77
(b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99
(d) 22,110

17. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56
(b) 52
(c) 60
(d) 50

18. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5
(b) 1
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.5

19. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
(a) 400
(b) 480
(c) 500
(d) 580

20. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
(a) 30 liters.
(b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters.
(d) 45 liters.

21. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss.
(b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss.
(d) 1 per cent gain.

22. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______
(A) acute angled
(B) obtuse angled
(C) right angled
(D) isosceles
Ans (D)

23. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Ans (D)

24. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by -
(a) 50 per cent
(b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent
(d) 125 per cent

25. A , B and C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400
(b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500
(d) Rs. 41,500

Answers

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b)
10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a)
18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d)

General intelligence is a person’s ability to think, reason, solve problems, and interact appropriately in situations. Answer the following questions and Test Your General Intelligence IQ Now.

1. A factor that ________ the understanding of the genetic versus environmental impacts on IQ is that twins who are separated tend to be placed in ________ households.

A. hinders, similar
B. confuses, dysfunctional
C. furthers, similar
D. furthers, dissimilar

2. If a test is standardized this means that

A. a person’s score can be compared with that of a pre tested group
B. the test is reliable
C. the test is valid
D. the average will always be 100

3. Criticisms of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences ________.

A. pertain to testing and measuring only
B. pertain to testing and measuring, whether these intelligences are skills, and cultural biases
C. pertain to testing and measuring and whether these intelligences are skills only
D. pertain to whether these intelligences are skills only

4. Those who define intelligence as academic aptitude are most likely to criticize

A. Gardner’s concept of multiple intelligences
B. Sternberg’s and Wagner’s concept of  practical intelligence
C. the standardization of college aptitude tests
D. the predictive reliability of modern intelligence tests

5. Another name for the “self-fulfilling prophesy” as an abuse of IQ test data is:

A. racial/cultural bias
B. gender bias
C. age bias
D. Pygmalion effect

6. The formula that was originally used to calculate the IQ was

A. (chronological age/mental age. X 100 = IQ
B. (mental age/chronological age. X 100 = IQ
C.  mental age X (chronological age/100) = IQ
D. (chronological age X mental age ) X 100 = IQ

7. Studies show that there is a positive correlation between intelligence and

A. digestion
B. neural processing speed
C. muscle mass
D. telepathy

8. Zajonc has proposed a model to explain the impact of family size and birth order on children’s IQs. According to his model, early-born children have higher IQs because they

A. get less attention from their parents
B. are more likely to have a varied environment
C. experience a higher than average intellectual environment
D. learn language earlier

9. The Cerebral Circumference Index is a measure of intelligence based on the circumference of the head just above the eyebrows. It is most reasonable to assume that the test is

A. reliable but not valid.
B. valid but not reliable.
C. both valid and reliable.
D. neither valid nor reliable.

10. Approximately what percentage of individuals will score between  85 and 115 on the WAIS?

A. 94%
B. 74%
C. 68%
D. 10%

Answer Key: 1.A  2.A   3.C   4.A   5.D   6.B   7.B   8.C   9.A   10. C

2011 Cricket World Cup 2011: Teams Qualified For Semifinal Round

India,Pakistan,Srilanka,New Zealand

Semi-Final Match Schedules

Sri Lanka v New Zealand 1st Semi-Final

March -29-14:30 local | 09:00 GMT | 14:30 IST |D/N

India v Pakistan 2nd Semi-Final

March 30 -14:30 local | 09:00 GMT | | D/N

World celebrates Earth Hour on March 26

Earth Hour: Delhi switches off lights, saves 296 MW power

Households, shops and offices across the capital city voluntarily switched off lights for an hour as the clock struck 8.30 pm Saturday and saved 296 MW power as part of the third edition of Earth Hour, a global initiative on climate change.

The participation in the drive, however, was patchy in the city due to ignorance among people. Also, a majority of commercial establishments, including malls and markets, could be seen illuminated brightly.

Bollywood star Vidya Balan who is this year’s cause ambassador was also present at the event.

Earth Hour:

Earth Hour is the world’s largest environmental movement which encourages individuals, businesses and communities around the world to turn off their lights for one hour on March 26 at 8.30 p.m. local time in a bid to raise awareness on climate change.

Delhiites came in droves to witness the event and were enthralled by the performances. Colourful balloons were released in the sky as soon as the lights were switched off and the lead singer of Euphoria, Palash Sen began singing.

1. The epigraph of The Waste Land is borrowed from—
(A) Virgil
(B) Petronius
(C) Seneca
(D) Homer
Ans : (D)

2. Who called The Waste Land ‘a music of ideas’ ?
(A) Allen Tate
(B) J. C. Ransom
(C) I. A. Richards
(D) F. R. Leavis
Ans : (A)

3. T. S. Eliot has borrowed the term ‘Unreal City’ in first and third sections from—
(A) Baudelaire
(B) Irving Babbit
(C) Dante
(D) Laforgue
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following myths does not figure in The Waste Land ?
(A) Oedipus
(B) Grail Legend of Fisher King
(C) Philomela
(D) Sysyphus
Ans : (D)

5. Joe Gargery is Pip’s—
(A) brother
(B) brother-in-law
(C) guardian
(D) cousin
Ans : (C)

6. Estella is the daughter of—
(A) Joe Gargery
(B) Abel Magwitch
(C) Miss Havisham
(D) Bentley Drummle
Ans : (A)

7. Which book of John Ruskin influenced Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Sesame and Lilies
(B) The Seven Lamps of Architecture
(C) Unto This Last
(D) Fors Clavigera
Ans : (C)

8. Graham Greene’s novels are marked by—
(A) Catholicism
(B) Protestantism
(C) Paganism
(D) Buddhism
Ans : (A)

9. One important feature of Jane Austen’s style is—
(A) boisterous humour
(B) humour and pathos
(C) subtlety of irony
(D) stream of consciousness
Ans : (B)

10. The title of the poem ‘The Second Coming’ is taken from—
(A) The Bible
(B) The Irish mythology
(C) The German mythology
(D) The Greek mythology
Ans : (A)

11. The main character in Paradise Lost Book I and Book II is—
(A) God
(B) Satan
(C) Adam
(D) Eve
Ans : (B)

12. In Sons and Lovers, Paul Morel’s mother’s name is—
(A) Susan
(B) Jane
(C) Gertrude
(D) Emily
Ans : (C)

13. The twins in Lord of the Flies are—
(A) Ralph and Jack
(B) Simon and Eric
(C) Ralph and Eric
(D) Simon and Jack
Ans : (A)

14. Mr. Jaggers, in Great Expectations, is a—
(A) lawyer
(B) postman
(C) judge
(D) school teacher
Ans : (A)

15. What does ‘I’ stand for in the following line ?
‘To Carthage then I came’
(A) Buddha
(B) Tiresias
(C) Smyrna Merchant
(D) Augustine
Ans : (D)

16. The following lines are an example of …… image. ‘The river sweats
Oil and tar’……
(A) visual
(B) kinetic
(C) erotic
(D) sensual
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following novels has the subtitle
‘A Novel Without a Hero’ ?
(A) Vanity Fair
(B) Middlemarch
(C) Wuthering Heights
(D) Oliver Twist
Ans : (A)

18. In ‘Leda and the Swan’, who wooes Leda in guise of a swan ?
(A) Mars
(B) Hercules
(C) Zeus
(D) Bacchus
Ans : (D)

19. Who invented the term ‘Sprung rhythm’ ?
(A) Hopkins
(B) Tennyson
(C) Browning
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

20. Who wrote the poem ‘Defence of Lucknow’ ?
(A) Browning
(B) Tennyson
(C) Swinburne
(D) Rossetti
Ans : (C)

21. Which of the following plays of Shakespeare has an epilogue ?
(A) The Tempest
(B) Henry IV, Pt I
(C) Hamlet
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (A)

22. Hamlet’s famous speech ‘To be, or not to be; that is the question’ occurs in—
(A) Act II, Scene I
(B) Act III, Scene III
(C) Act IV, Scene III
(D) Act III, Scene I
Ans : (D)

23. Identify the character in The Tempest who is referred to as ‘an honest old councellor’—
(A) Alonso
(B) Ariel
(C) Gonzalo
(D) Stephano
Ans : (C)

24. What is the sub-title of the play Twelfth Night ?
(A) Or, What is you Will
(B) Or, What you Will
(C) Or, What you Like It
(D) Or, What you Think
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following plays of Shakespeare, according to T. S. Eliot, is ‘artistic failure’ ?
(A) The Tempest
(B) Hamlet
(C) Henry IV, Pt I
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (B)

26. Who is Thomas Percy in Henry IV, Pt I ?
(A) Earl of Northumberland
(B) Earl of March
(C) Earl of Douglas
(D) Earl of Worcester
Ans : (A)

27. Paradise Lost was originally written in—
(A) ten books
(B) eleven books
(C) nine books
(D) eight books
Ans : (D)

28. In Pride and Prejudice, Lydia elopes with—
(A) Darcy
(B) Wickham
(C) William Collins
(D) Charles Bingley
Ans : (B)

29. Who coined the phrase ‘Egotistical Sublime’?
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) P. B. Shelley
(C) S. T. Coleridge
(D) John Keats
Ans : (C)

30. Who is commonly known as ‘Pip’ in Great Expectations ?
(A) Philip Pirrip
(B) Filip Pirip
(C) Philip Pip
(D) Philips Pirip
Ans : (C)

31. The novel The Power and the Glory is set in—
(A) Mexico
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following is Golding’s first novel ?
(A) The Inheritors
(B) Lord of the Flies
(C) Pincher Martin
(D) Pyramid
Ans : (B)

33. Identify the character who is a supporter of Women’s Rights in Sons and Lovers ?
(A) Mrs. Morel
(B) Annie
(C) Miriam
(D) Clara Dawes
Ans : (A)

34. Vanity Fair is a novel by—
(A) Jane Austen
(B) Charles Dickens
(C) W. M. Thackeray
(D) Thomas Hardy
Ans : (C)

35. Shelley’s Adonais is an elegy on the death of—
(A) Milton
(B) Coleridge
(C) Keats
(D) Johnson
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following is the first novel of D. H. Lawrence ?
(A) The White Peacock
(B) The Trespasser
(C) Sons and Lovers
(D) Women in Love
Ans : (A)

37. In the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’, ‘dearest friend’ refers to—
(A) Nature
(B) Dorothy
(C) Coleridge
(D) Wye
Ans : (B)

38. Who, among the following, is not the second generation of British Romantics ?
(A) Keats
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Shelley
(D) Byron
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following poems of Coleridge is a ballad ?
(A) Work Without Hope
(B) Frost at Midnight
(C) The Rime of the Ancient Mariner
(D) Youth and Age
Ans : (C)

40. Identify the writer who was expelled from Oxford for circulating a pamphlet—
(A) P. B. Shelley
(B) Charles Lamb
(C) Hazlitt
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (A)

41. Keats’s Endymion is dedicated to—
(A) Leigh Hunt
(B) Milton
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Thomas Chatterton
Ans : (A)

42. The second series of Essays of Elia by Charles Lamb was published in—
(A) 1823
(B) 1826
(C) 1834
(D) 1833
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following poets does not belong to the ‘Lake School’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Coleridge
(C) Southey
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

44. Who, among the following writers, was not educated at Christ’s Hospital School, London ?
(A) Charles Lamb
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) Leigh Hunt
(D) S. T. Coleridge
Ans : (A)

45. Who derided Hazlitt as one of the members of the ‘Cockney School of Poetry’ ?
(A) Tennyson
(B) Charles Lamb
(C) Lockhart
(D) T. S. Eliot
Ans : (D)

46. Tennyson’s poem ‘In Memoriam’ was written in memory of—
(A) A. H. Hallam
(B) Edward King
(C) Wellington
(D) P. B. Shelley
Ans : (A)

47. Who, among the following, is not connected with the Oxford Movement ?
(A) Robert Browning
(B) John Keble
(C) E. B. Pusey
(D) J. H. Newman
Ans : (A)

48. Identify the work by Swinburne which begins ‘‘when the hounds of spring are on winter’s traces…’’—
(A) Chastelard
(B) A Song of Italy
(C) Atalanta in Calydon
(D) Songs before Sunrise
Ans : (C)

49. Carlyle’s work On Heroes, Hero-Worship and the Heroic in History is a course of—
(A) six lectures
(B) five lectures
(C) four lectures
(D) seven lectures
Ans : (B)

50. Who is praised as a hero by Carlyle in his lecture on the ‘Hero as King’ ?
(A) Johnson
(B) Cromwell
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Luther
Ans : (B)

51. Identify the work by Ruskin which began as a defence of contemporary landscape artist especially Turner—
(A) The Stones of Venice
(B) The Two Paths
(C) The Seven Lamps of Architecture
(D) Modern Painters
Ans : (D)

52. The term ‘the Palliser Novels’ is used to describe the political novels of—
(A) Charles Dickens
(B) Anthony Trollope
(C) W. H. White
(D) B. Disraeli
Ans : (D)

53. Identify the poet whom Queen Victoria, regarded as the perfect poet of ‘love and loss’—
(A) Tennyson
(B) Browning
(C) Swinburne
(D) D. G. Rossetti
Ans : (D)

54. A verse form using stanza of eight lines, each with eleven syllables, is known as—
(A) Spenserian Stanza
(B) Ballad
(C) Ottava Rima
(D) Rhyme Royal
Ans : (C)

55. Identify the writer who first used blank verse in English poetry—
(A) Sir Thomas Wyatt
(B) William Shakespeare
(C) Earl of Surrey
(D) Milton
Ans : (C)

56. The Aesthetic Movement which blossomed during the 1880s was not influenced by—
(A) The Pre-Raphaelites
(B) Ruskin
(C) Pater
(D) Matthew Arnold
Ans : (D)

57. Identify the rhetorical figure used in the following line of Tennyson : ‘‘Faith unfaithful kept him falsely true.’’
(A) Oxymoron
(B) Metaphor
(C) Simile
(D) Synecdoche
Ans : (A)

58. W. B. Yeats used the phrase ‘the artifice of eternity’ in his poem—
(A) Sailing to Byzantium
(B) Byzantium
(C) The Second Coming
(D) Leda and the Swan
Ans : (A)

59. Who is Pip’s friend in London ?
(A) Pumblechook
(B) Herbert Pocket
(C) Bentley Drummle
(D) Jaggers
Ans : (D)

60. Who is Mr. Tench in The Power and the Glory ?
(A) A teacher
(B) A clerk
(C) A thief
(D) A dentist
Ans : (C)

61. Pride and Prejudice was originally a youthful work entitled—
(A) ‘Last Impressions’
(B) ‘False Impressions’
(C) ‘First Impressions’
(D) ‘True Impressions’
Ans : (C)

62. Identify the novel in which the character of Charlotte Lucas figures—
(A) Great Expectations
(B) The Power and the Glory
(C) Lord of the Flies
(D) Pride and Prejudice
Ans : (D)

63. ‘There’s a special providence in the fall of a sparrow.’’
The line given above occurs in
(A) Hamlet
(B) Henry IV, Pt I
(C) The Tempest
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (A)

64. Who said that Shakespeare in his comedies has only heroines and no heroes ?
(A) Ben Jonson
(B) John Ruskin
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) William Hazlitt
Ans : (B)

65. Sir John Falstaff is one of Shakespeare’s greatest—
(A) comic figures
(B) historical figures
(C) romantic figures
(D) tragic figures
Ans : (A)

66. That Milton was of the Devil’s party without knowing it, was said by—
(A) Blake
(B) Eliot
(C) Johnson
(D) Shelley
Ans : (A)

67. Who called Shelley ‘a beautiful and ineffectual angel beating in the void his luminous wings in vain’ ?
(A) Walter Pater
(B) A. C. Swinburne
(C) Matthew Arnold
(D) T. S. Eliot
Ans : (C)

68. Essays of Elia are—
(A) full of didactic sermonising
(B) practically autobiographical fragments
(C) remarkable for their aphoristic style
(D) satirical and critical
Ans : (B)

69. The theme of Tennyson’s Poem ‘The Princess’ is—
(A) Queen Victoria’s coronation
(B) Industrial Revolution
(C) Women’s Education and Rights
(D) Rise of Democracy
Ans : (C)

70. Thackeray’s Esmond is a novel of historical realism capturing the spirit of—
(A) the Medieval age
(B) the Elizabethan age
(C) the age of Queen Anne
(D) the Victorian age
Ans : (A)

71. Oedipus Complex is—
(A) a kind of physical ailment
(B) a kind of vitamin
(C) a brother’s attraction towards his sister
(D) a son’s attraction towards his mother
Ans : (D)

72. ‘My own great religion is a belief in the blood, the flesh as being wiser than the intellect.’’ Who wrote this ?
(A) Graham Greene
(B) D. H. Lawrence
(C) Charles Dickens
(D) Jane Austen
Ans : (B)

73. Shakespeare makes fun of the Puritans in his play—
(A) Twelfth Night
(B) Hamlet
(C) The Tempest
(D) Henry IV, Pt I
Ans : (A)

74. ‘The rarer action is in virtue that in vengeance.’ This line occurs in—
(A) Hamlet
(B) Henry IV, Pt I
(C) The Tempest
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (C)

75. Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice is a—
(A) Picaresque novel
(B) Gothic novel
(C) Domestic novel
(D) Historical novel
Ans : (C)

76. ‘Heaven lies about us in our infancy’. This line occurs in the poem—
(A) Immortality Ode
(B) Tintern Abbey
(C) The Second Coming
(D) Leda and the Swan
Ans : (A)

77. Wordsworth calls himself ‘a Worshipper of Nature’ in his poem—
(A) Immortality Ode
(B) Tintern Abbey
(C) The Prelude
(D) The Solitary Reaper
Ans : (B)

78. When Wordsworth’s ‘Immortality Ode’ was first published in 1802, it had only—
(A) Stanzas I to IV
(B) Stanzas I to V
(C) Stanzas I to VI
(D) Stanzas I to VII
Ans : (B)

79. Which method of narration has been employed by Dickens in his novel Great Expectations ?
(A) Direct or epic method
(B) Documentary method
(C) Stream of Consciousness technique
(D) Autobiographical method
Ans : (A)

80. Who said ‘Keats was a Greek’ ?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Coleridge
(C) Lamb
(D) Shelley
Ans : (B)

81. D. G. Rossetti was a true literary descendant of—
(A) Keats
(B) Byron
(C) Shelley
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

82. To which character in Hamlet does the following description apply ?
‘‘The tedious wiseacre who meddles his way to his doom.’’
(A) Claudius
(B) Hamlet
(C) Polonius
(D) Rosencrantz
Ans : (B)

83. ‘Brevity is the soul of wit’ is a quotation from—
(A) Milton
(B) William Shakespeare
(C) T. S. Eliot
(D) Ruskin
Ans : (B)

84. ‘Dost thou think, because thou art virtuous, there shall be no more cakes and ale’. Who speaks the lines given above in Twelfth Night ?
(A) Duke Orsino
(B) Malvolio
(C) Sir Andrew Aguecheek
(D) Sir Toby Belch
Ans : (D)

85. In Paradise Lost, Book I, Satan is the embodiment of Milton’s—
(A) Sense of injured merit
(B) Hatred of tyranny
(C) Spirit of revolt
(D) All these
Ans : (C)

86. Who calls poetry ‘the breadth and finer spirit of all knowledge’ ?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Shelley
(C) Keats
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (A)

87. Twelfth Night opens with the speech of—
(A) Viola
(B) Duke
(C) Olivia
(D) Malvolio
Ans : (B)

88. What was the cause of William’s death in Sons and Lovers ?
(A) An accident
(B) An overdose of morphia
(C) Suicide
(D) Pneumonia
Ans : (D)

89. Which poem of Coleridge is an opium dream ?
(A) Kubla Khan
(B) Christabel
(C) The Ancient Mariner
(D) Ode on the Departing Year
Ans : (A)

90. Which stanza form did Shelley use in his famous poem ‘Ode to theWest Wind’ ?
(A) Rime royal
(B) Ottava rima
(C) Terza rima
(D) Spenserian Stanza
Ans : (C)

91. The phrase ‘Pathetic fallacy’ is coined by—
(A) Milton
(B) Coleridge
(C) Carlyle
(D) John Ruskin
Ans : (D)

92. Tracts for the Times relates to—
(A) The Oxford Movement
(B) The Pre-Raphaelite Movement
(C) The Romantic Movement
(D) The Symbolist Movement
Ans : (A)

93. The Chartist Movement sought—
(A) Protection of the political rights of the working class
(B) Recognition of chartered trading companies
(C) Political rights for women
(D) Protection of the political rights of the middle class
Ans : (A)

94. Who wrote Biographia Literaria ?
(A) Byron
(B) Shelley
(C) Coleridge
(D) Lamb
Ans : (C)

95. Who was Fortinbras ?
(A) Claudius’s son
(B) Son to the king of Norway
(C) Ophelia’s lover
(D) Hamlet’s friend
Ans : (B)

96. How many soliloquies are spoken by Hamlet in the play Hamlet ?
(A) Nine
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) Three
Ans : (C)

97. ‘The best lack all conviction, while the worst are full of passionate intensity.’
The above lines have been taken from—
(A) The Waste Land
(B) Tintern Abbey
(C) The Second Coming
(D) Prayer for My Daughter
Ans : (C)

98. William Morel in Sons and Lovers is drawn after—
(A) Lawrence’s father
(B) Lawrence’s brother
(C) Lawrence himself
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

99. The most notable characteristic of Keats’ poetry is—
(A) Satire
(B) Sensuality
(C) Sensuousness
(D) Social reform
Ans : (C)

100. The key-note of Browning’s philosophy of life is—
(A) agnosticism
(B) optimism
(C) pessimism
(D) scepticism
Ans : (B)

101. The title of Carlyle’s ‘Sartor Resartus’ means—
(A) Religious Scripture
(B) Seaside Resort
(C) Tailor Repatched
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

102. Epipsychidion is composed by—
(A) Coleridge
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Keats
(D) Shelley
Ans : (D)

103. ‘The better part of valour is discretion’ occurs in Shakespeare’s—
(A) Hamlet
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) The Tempest
(D) Henry IV, Pt I
Ans : (D)

104. Epic similes are found in which work of John Milton ?
(A) Paradise Lost
(B) Sonnets
(C) Lycidas
(D) Areopagitica
Ans : (A)

105. Identify the writer who used a pseudonym, Michael Angelo Titmarsh, for much of his early work—
(A) Charles Dickens
(B) W. M. Thackeray
(C) Graham Greene
(D) D. H. Lawrence
Ans : (C)

106. Browning’s famous poem ‘Rabbi Ben Ezra’ is included in—
(A) Dramatis Personae
(B) Dramatic Idyls
(C) Asolando
(D) Red Cotton Night-Cap Country
Ans : (A)

107. S. T. Coleridge was an Associate of—
(A) The Royal Society of Edinburgh
(B) The Royal Society of London
(C) Royal Society of Arts
(D) Royal Society of Literature
Ans : (D)

108. Which of the following is an unfinished novel by Jane Austen ?
(A) Sense and Sensibility
(B) Mansfield Park
(C) Sandition
(D) Persuasion
Ans : (C)

109. Why did Miss Havisham remain a spinster throughout her life in Great Expectations ?
(A) She was poor
(B) She was arrogant
(C) Because she was betrayed by the bridegroom
(D) She was unwilling to marry
Ans : (B)

110. W. B. Yeats received the Nobel Prize for literature in the year—
(A) 1938
(B) 1925
(C) 1932
(D) 1923
Ans : (D)

111. The Romantic Revival in English Poetry was influenced by the—
(A) French Revolution
(B) Glorious Revolution of 1688
(C) Reformation
(D) Oxford Movement
Ans : (A)

112. The Pre-Raphaelite poets were mostly indebted to the poets of the—
(A) Puritan movement
(B) Romantic revival
(C) Neo-classical age
(D) Metaphysical school
Ans : (B)

113. ‘O, you are sick of self-love.’ Who is referred to in these words in Twelfth Night ?
(A) Orsino
(B) Sir Andrew
(C) Sir Toby
(D) Malvolio
Ans : (D)

114. Hamlet is—
(A) an intellectual
(B) a man of action
(C) a passionate lover
(D) an over ambitious man
Ans : (C)

115. Which of Shakespeare’s characters exclaims; ‘Brave, new, world !’ ?
(A) Ferdinand
(B) Antonio
(C) Miranda
(D) Prospero
Ans : (C)

116. Paradise Lost shows an influence of—
(A) Paganism
(B) Pre-Christian theology
(C) Christianity and the Renaissance
(D) Greek nihilism
Ans : (C)

117. The style of Paradise Lost is—
(A) more Latin than most poems
(B) more spontaneous than thought out
(C) more satirical than spontaneous
(D) more dramatic than lyrical
Ans : (A)

118. In Pride and Prejudice we initially dislike but later tend to like—
(A) Mr. Bennet
(B) Wickham
(C) Bingley
(D) Darcy
Ans : (D)

119. Who in Hamlet suggests that one should neither be a lender nor a borrower ?
(A) Gertrude
(B) Polonius
(C) Horatio
(D) Hamlet
Ans : (B)

120. Shakespeare’s Henry IV, Pt I contains his—
(A) senecan attitude
(B) patriotism
(C) love of nature
(D) platonic ideals
Ans : (B)

1.Regulations that arise to ensure that firms take responsibility for the social costs of their products or production processes stem from which reason for government legislation of business?
(a) To protect companies from each other
(b) To protect consumers from unfair business practices
(c) To protect the interests of society
(d) To protect businesses from unfair consumer demands

Answer : C

2.A “three-day cooling off period” in which buyers can cancel a contract after re-thinking it is to protect the consumer fromAnswer :
(a) creative selling (b) high pressure selling (c) detail selling (d) hard core selling

Answer : B

3.One of the most promising developments in multivariable segmentation is called _____ where a host of demographic and socioeconomic factors are used
(a) terragraphic segmentation (b) fermagraphic segmentation
(c) geothermy segmentation (d) geodemographic segmentation

Answer : D

4.One of the most common problems with using internal database information is thatAnswer :
(a) since it was probably collected for some other purpose, it may be incomplete or wrong.
(b) it is usually expensive to retrieve.
(c) top executives are usually unwilling to relinquish data, therefore, the data has limits.
(d) the data is almost always unsecured and therefore, suspect as to reliability

Answer : A

5.The last stage in the selling process is the _____ stage.
(a) approach (b) handling objections (c) closing (d) follow-up

Answer : D

6.When Coca-Cola and Nestle formed a joint venture to market a ready-to-drink coffee and tea worldwide, the type of marketing system that was formed would best be described as being a(n)Answer :
(a) vertical marketing system (b) parallel marketing system
(c) diversified marketing system (d) horizontal marketing system

Answer : D

7.The major advantage of survey research is itsAnswer :
(a) simplicity (b) structure (c) organization (d) flexibility

Answer : D

8.The _____ holds that consumers will favor products that are available and highly affordable (therefore, work on improving production and distribution efficiency)
(a) product concept (b) production concept
(c) production cost expansion concept (d) marketing concept

Answer : B

9.A ____ is any activity or benefit offered for sale that is essentially intangible and does not result in the ownership of anything
(a) demand (b) basic staple (c) product (d) service

Answer : D

10._____ is a person’s distinguishing psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to his or her own environment
(a) Psychographics (b) Personality (c) Demographics (d) Lifestyle

Answer : B

11.The place in the business buying behavior model where interpersonal and individual influence might interact is called the
(a) environment (b) response (c) stimuli (d) buying center

Answer : D

12.The course of a product’s sales and profits over its lifetime is called
(a) the sales chart (b) the dynamic growth curve
(c) the adoption cycle (d) the product life cycle

Answer : D

13.When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumer’s wants and the long-run interests of the company, consumer, and the general population, they are practicing which of the following principles?
(a) Innovative marketing (b) Consumer-oriented marketing
(c) Value marketing (d) Societal marketing

Answer : D

14.All of the following are thought to be sources if new product ideas EXCEPT.
(a) internal sources (b) customers (c) competitors (d) the local library

Answer : D

15.If Honda uses its company name to cover such different products as its automobiles, lawn mowers, and motorcycles, it is practicing which of the following strategies?
(a) new brand strategy (b) line extension strategy
(c) multibrand strategy (d) brand extension strategy

Answer : D

16.If a company (considering its options on the product/market expansion grid) chooses to move into different unrelated fields (from what it has ever done before) with new products as a means to stimulate growth, the company would be following which of the following general strategies?
(a) market penetration (b) market development
(c) product development (d) diversification

Answer : D

17.When a marketing research organization chooses a segment of the population that represents the population as a whole, they have chosen a _____
(a) group (b) bi-variant population (c) sample (d) market target

Answer : C

18.Joining with foreign companies to produce or market products and services is called
(a) direct exporting (b) indirect exporting (c) licensing (d) joint venturing

Answer : D

19.If advertising constantly sends out messages about materialism, sex, power, and status, which of the following categories of social criticism most closely matches this problem?
(a) Too much advertising (b) Too few social goods
(c) Cultural pollution (d) Too much political power

Answer : C

20.A(n) ____ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the marker or seller of a product or service.
(a) product feature (b) sponsorship (c) brand (d) logo

Answer : C

21.If an advertiser wants flexibility, timeliness, good local market coverage, broad acceptability and high believability, the advertiser will probably choose which of the following mass media types?
(a) Newspapers (b) Television (c) Direct Mail (d) Radio

Answer : A

22.When producers, wholesalers, and retailers as a unified system, they comprise a
(a) conventional marketing system (b) power-based marketing system (c) horizontal marketing system (d) vertical marketing system

Answer : D

23.The type of trade-promotion discount in which manufacturers agree to reduce the price to the retailer in exchange for the retailer’s agreement to feature the manufacture’s products in some way is called
(a) discount (b) allowance (c) premium (d) rebate

Answer : B

24.The study of human populations in terms of size, density, location, age, gender, race, occupation, and other statistics is calledAnswer :
(a) Geothermy (b) Demography (c) Ethnography (d) Hemos-popography

Answer : B

25.Today, advertising captures about ___ percent of total promotion spending
(a) 15 (b) 23 (c) 29 (d) 33

Answer : B

26.The process that turns marketing strategies and plans into marketing actions in order to accomplish strategic marketing objectives is calledAnswer :
(a) Marketing strategy (b) Marketing control
(c) Marketing analysis (d) Marketing implementation

Answer : D

27.The goal of the marketing logistics system should be to provideAnswer :
(a) a targeted level of promotional support.
(b) a targeted level of customer service at the least cost.
(c) a targeted level of transportation expense ratio.
(d) a targeted level of field support.

Answer : B

28.The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market or subsets of a few markets is calledAnswer :
(a) undifferentiated marketing (b) differentiated marketing
(c) concentrated marketing (d) turbo marketing

Answer : C

29.The shrinking of distances due to technological advance such as computer and fax connections by telephone, are one characteristic of what new challenge to marketing?
(a) Rapid globalization
(b) The changing world economy
(c) The call for more socially responsible marketing
(d) The micro-chip revolution

Answer : A

30.If Mark Mars pays Hershey Foods Corporation for the right to use their name on his line of T-shirts, then Mr. Mars is using which type of branding?
(a) Licensed brand (b) Manufacturer’s brand
(c) Private brand (d) Co-brand

Answer : A

31.If your company were to make light bulbs to be used in photocopies, you would most likely be selling to a ______ market.
(a) reseller (b) business (c) government (d) service

Answer : B

32._____ has the advantage of being high in selectivity; low cost, immediacy, and interactive capabilities
(a) Direct Mail (b) Outdoor (c) Online (d) Radio

Answer : C

33.If your company were to make a product such as a suit of clothes and sold that product to a retailer, your company would have sold to the _______market.
(a) reseller (b) business (c) government (d) service

Answer : A

34.In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company made a classic marketing blunder with its deletion of its popular Coca-Cola product and introduction of what it called New Coke. Analysts now believe that most of the company’s problems resulted from poor marketing research. As the public demanded their “old Coke” back, the company relented and reintroduced Coca-Cola Classic (which has regained and surpassed  its former position) while New Coke owns only 0.1 percent of the market. Which of the following marketing research mistakes did coca-Cola make?
(a) They did not investigate pricing correctly and priced the product too high.
(b) They defined not investigate dealer reaction and had inadequate distribution.
(c) They defined their marketing research problem too narrowly
(d) They failed to account for the Pepsi challenge taste test in their marketing efforts

Answer : C

35.Marketers are sometimes accused of deceptive practices that lead consumers to believe they will get get more value than they actually do. ____ includes practices such as falsely advertising “factory” or “wholesale” prices or a large price reduction from a phony high retail price.
(a) Deceptive promotion (b) Deceptive packaging
(c) Deceptive pricing (d) Deceptive cost structure

Answer : C

36.The advantages of audience selectivity, no ad competition and personalization apply to which type of media?
(a) Newspapers (b) Television (c) Direct Mail (d) Radio

Answer : C

37.The first modern environmental movement in the United States began in theAnswer :
(a) 1940s (b) 1950s (c) 1960s and 1970s (d) mid 1980s

Answer : C

38.Costs that do not vary with production or sales levels are calledAnswer :
(a) fixed costs (b) variable costs
(c) standard costs (d) independent costs

Answer : A

39.Each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive area in which to sell the company’s full line of products or services in which type of sales force structure?
(a) Territorial sales force (b) Product sales force
(c) Customer sales force (d) Hybrid sales force

Answer : A

40.Techonological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
(a) decline stage (b) introduction stage
(c) growth stage (d) maturity stage

Answer : A

41.Setting the promotion budget so as to match the budgets of the competition is characteristic of which of the following budget methods?
(a) Affordable method (b) Percentage-of-Sales method
(c) Competitive-and-parity method (d) Objective -and-task method

Answer : C

42.____ is screening new-product ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
(a) Idea generation (b) Concept development and testing
(c) Idea screening (d) Brainstorming

Answer : C

43.The type of sales force structure in which the sales force sells along product lines is called a
(a) territorial sales force (b) product sales force
(c) customer sales force (d) retail sales force

Answer : B

44.A company is in the _____ stage of the new product development process when the company develops the product concept into a physical product in order to assure that the product idea can be turned into a workable product.
(a) product development (b) commercialization
(c) marketing strategy (d) business analysis

Answer : A

45.When personal interviewing involves inviting six to ten people to gather for a few hours with a trained interviewer to talk about a product, service, or organization, the method is calledAnswer :
(a) selective sponsorship (b) probing
(c) focus group interviewing (d) the Delphi method

Answer : C

46.All of the following factors can affect the attractiveness of a market segment
EXCEPTAnswer :
(a) the presence of many strong and aggressive competitors
(b) the likelihood of government monitoring
(c) actual or potential substitute products
(d) the power of buyers in the segment

Answer : B

47.If a government uses barriers to foreign products such as biases against a foreign company’s bids, or product standards that go against a foreign company’s product features, the government is using
(a) protectionism (b) exchange controls
(c) exchange facilitators (d) non-tariff trade barriers

Answer : D

48.The choice between high markups and high volume is part of which of the following retailer marketing decisions?
(a) Target market decisions
(b) Product assortment and services decisions
(c) Pricing decisions
(d) Promotion decisions

Answer : C

49.One common misuse of marketing research findings in contemporary business is the tendency for marketing research to Answer :
(a) become a vehicle for pitching the sponsor’s products
(b) become a vehicle for discriminating in the marketplace
(c) become a means for raising prices
(d) become a means for unfair competition

Answer : A

50.The most logical budget setting method is found in the list below. Which is it?
(a) Affordable method (b) Percentage-of-Sales method
(c) Competitive-parity method (d) Objective-and-task method

Answer : D

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World -Latest Appointments

Dilma Rousseff: She has been elected as the first woman Presient of Brazil.
Marouf Bakhit: He has been appointed as the Prime Minister of Jordan by King Abdullah.

India -Union Cabinet Reshuffle/Appointments

Praful Patel: Union Minister, Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
Salman Khurshid: Union Minister, Water Resources and additional charge of Minority Affairs
S. Jaiswal: Union Minister, Coal.
Sharad Pawar: Union Minister, Agriculture & Food Processing Industry.
Vilasrao Deshmukh: Union Minister, Rural Development & additional charge of Panchayati Raj.
Jaipal Reddy: Union Minister, Petroleum & Natural Gas.
Kamal Nath: Union Minister, Urban Development.
Vayalar Ravi: Union Minister, Overseas Indian Affairs and additional charge of Civil Aviation.
Murli Deora: Union Minister, Corporate Affairs.
Virbhadra Singh: Union Minister, Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises.
C.P. Joshi: Union Minister, Highways & Transport.
M.S. Gill: Union Minister, Statistics, Programme Implementation.
Kumari Selja: Union Minister, Culture, Housing, Urban Poverty alleviation.
Subhod Kant Shay: Union Minister, Tourism.
Ashwani Kumar: Minister of State (Independent Charge), Parliamentary Affairs, Planning, Science & Technology, Earth Sciences.
Ajay Maken: Minister of State (Independent Charge), Youth Affairs & Sports.
Beni Prasad Verma: Minister of State (Independent Charge), Steel.
Prof K.G. Thomas: Minister of State (Independent Charge), Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
K.C. Venugopal: Minister of State, Power.
E. Ahamed: Minister of State, External Affairs.
V. Narayanasamy: Minister of State, PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Parliamentary Affairs.
Gurudas Kamath: Minister of State, Telecom.
A. Sai Prathap: Minister of State, Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
Bharatsinh Solanki: Minister of State, Railways.
Jitin Prasad: Minister of State, Road Transport & Highways.
Madhav S. Khandela: Minister of State, Tribal Affairs.
R.P.N. Singh: Minister of State, Petroleum & Natural Gas and Corporate Affairs.
Tusharbhai Chaudhary: Minister of State, Raod Transport & Highways.
Arun Yadav: Minister of State, Agriculture & Food Preocessing Industries.
P.P. Patil: Minister of State, Coal.
Vincet Pala: Minister of State, Water Resources and Minority Affairs.

Major Events -January 2011

India joins the UN Security Council (UNSC) as its non-permanent member for a two-year term after a gap on 19 years.

China’s first radar evading stealth fighter makes its maiden test flight, making the country only the second nation after USA to test such cutting-edge technology.
All-India mobile number portability services are launched by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

Miscellaneous

M.D. Mallaya: Chief of Bank of Baroda, he has been chosen as the Business Standard Banker of the Year.
Bappi Lahiri: He has become the first Indian composer to be in the Grammy jury for the awards in 2012.

1. In India the major export of iron ore is from
(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Paradip (c) Marmugao (d) Haldia

Answer :  C

2. As an export item of India, which spice occupies the top position in value?
(a) Pepper (b) Chilies (c) Turmeric (d) Cardamom

Answer :  A

3. The first chemical port in India for export and import of chemical products is being set up at
a) Diu (b) Mumbai (c) Porbandar (d) Dahej

Answer :  A

4. Which one of the following ports was developed first after Independence?
(a) Paradip (b) Tuticorin (c) Marmugo (d) Kandala

Answer :  D

5. In India, a tax on agricultural income can be levied
(a) Only by the central Government (b) Only by the state Government
(c) By both the central and state Governments
(d) By neither the central nor the state Government

Answer :  B

6.Which one of the following is not a central tax?
(a) Sales tax (b) Income tax (c) Excise duty (d) Customs duty

Answer :  A

7. The central objective projected by the eleventh five year plan of India is
(a) Faster Rural development (b) faster and enhanced Industrial growth
(c) Enhancement of Agricultural Products (d) Welfare of Women and children

Answer :  B

8.Who is known as the father of ‘Zero base budgeting’?
(a) Philips Kotleryhrr (b) Peter A Pyhrr (c) Tony Blair (d) Manmohan Singh

Answer :  B

9. The Reserve Bank of India was established
(a) 1st January 1949 (b) 1st April 1935 (c) 1st March 1947 (d) 1st may 1955

Answer :  B

10.Which of the following has become the first company in India to obtain BBB rating, higher than the country sovereign rating, from global credit agency Standard and Poor’s:
(a) Wipro (b) TCS (c) Satyam (d) Infosys (d) None of these

Answer :  D

11. Which company has become the first Indian company in the automobile and engineering sector to be listed on the NEW York Stock Exchange (NYSE):
(a) Maruti Udyog Ltd (b) Mahindra & Mahindra
(c) Hindustan Motors (d) Tata Motors (e) None of these

Answer :  D

12. Data one is the name associated with:
(a) Reliance Infocom (b) Tata Infocom
(c) Airtel (d) BSNL broadband service
(e) None of these

Answer :  D

13. The first state in India to recognize tourism as an industry is
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil nadu (c) Goa (d) Maharashtra

Answer :  C

14.The Indian state with highest per capita income is
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana
(c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra

Answer :  A

15.The largest public sector industry in India is
(a) Coal (b) Railways
(c) Post and Telegraph (d) Indian Oil Corporation

Answer :  B

16. The signature found on a 10 rupee note is that of
(a) The finance Minister of India
(b) The Secretary Finance Department
(c) The President of India
(d) The Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Answer :  D

17.How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 19

Answer :  C

18. Decimal coinage was introduced in India in the year.
(a) 1955 (b) 1957 (c) 1960 (d) 1947

Answer :  B

19. The ‘Garibi Hatao’ slogan was coined by
(a) 1989  (b) 1985  (c) 1979 (d) 1975

Answer :  D

20. The twenty point programme was first started by
(a) Rajiv Gandhi  (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharal Nehru (d) Narasimha Rao

Answer :  B

Number Sequences- find the missing number in a sequence of numbers

1. Find the next number in the series

4     8     16     32     —
A) 48     B) 64     C) 40      D) 46

2. Find the next number in the series

4     8     12     20     —
A) 32     B) 34     C) 36      D) 38

3. Find the missing number in the series

54     49     —     39     34
A) 47     B) 44     C) 45      D) 46

4. Find the first number in the series

—     19     23     29     31
A) 12     B) 15     C) 16      D) 17

5. Find the next number in the series

3     6     11     18     —
A) 30     B) 22     C) 27      D) 29

6. Find the next number in the series

48     46     42     38     —
A) 32     B) 30     C) 33      D) 34

These number sequences usually consist of four visible numbers plus one missing number.

7. Find the missing number in the series

.
4     3     5     9     12     17     —
A) 32     B) 30     C) 24      D) 26

8. Find the missing numbers in the series

5     6     7     8     10     11     14     —     —-
A) 19     B) 17     C) 15      D) 16

9. Find the missing numbers in the series

1     –     4     7     7     8     10     9     —-
A) 6     B) 3     C) 11      D) 13

Answers
1. B  The numbers double each time
2. A  Each number is the sum of the previous two numbers
3. B  The numbers decrease by 5 each time
4. D  The numbers are primes (divisible only by 1 and themselves)
5. C  The interval, beginning with 3, increases by 2 each time
6. B  The interval, beginning with 2, increases by 2 and is subtracted each time
7. D  Each number is the sum of the previous and the number 3 places to the left
8. C A  There are 2 simple interleaved sequences 5,7,10,14,19 and 6,8,11,15
9. A D  There are 2 simple interleaved sequences 1,4,7,10,13 and 6,7,8,9

A tsunami , also called a tsunami wave train, or less frequently a tidal wave, is a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of a body of water, usually an ocean, though it can occur in large lakes. Tsunamis are a frequent occurrence in Japan approximately 195 events have been recorded. Owing to the immense volumes of water and the high energy involved, tsunamis can devastate coastal regions.

Earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and other underwater explosions (including detonations of underwater nuclear devices), landslides and other mass movements, meteorite ocean impacts or similar impact events, and other disturbances above or below water all have the potential to generate a tsunami.

The Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) was an Indian Ministry of Defence program between the early 1980s and 2007 for the development of a comprehensive range of missiles, including the intermediate range Agni missile (Surface to Surface), and short range missiles such as the Prithvi ballistic missile (Surface to Surface), Akash missile (Surface to Air), Trishul missile (Surface to Air) and Nag Missile (Anti Tank). The program was managed by Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) in partnership with other Indian government labs and research centres. One of the most prominent chief engineers on the project, Dr. Abdul Kalam went on to become the President of India.

Indian Missiles  and its details

Agni-I SRBM 850 km 1,000 kg Operational
Agni-II MRBM 2,500 km 500 kg – 1,000 kg Operational
Agni-III ICBM 3,500 km – 5,500 km 2,490 kg Operational
Agni-V ICBM 5,000 km – 6,000 km 3,000 kg+ Under Development
Agni 3SL ICBM 5,200 km – 11,600 km 700 kg – 1,400 kg Under Development

Akash SAM 30 km 60 kg Operational

BrahMos-I Supersonic Cruise Missile 290 km 300 kg Operational

Dhanush SRBM 350 km 500 kg Operational

Prithvi-I SRBM 150 km 1000 kg Operational
Prithvi-II SRBM 250 km 500 kg Operational
Prithvi-III SRBM 350 km 500 kg Operational

Sagarika

The K-15 Sagarika  missile is a submarine-launched variant of the Prithvi missile with a range of 700 km.[25][26] Sagarika is a two-stage surface-to-surface missile for launch from submarines. The first stage is an underwater booster that powers the missile to 5 km above the surface of the ocean. A second solid-fueled stage with a 16 metric ton force (157 kN) thrust motor then propels the missile over 700 km.

Dhanush
Dhanush is a ship-launched variant of the Prithvi missile. The first test for the missile was conducted from a modified offshore patrol vessel INS Subhadra (P51) on 11 April 2000, which was unsuccessful.

Akash
Akash  is a medium range surface-to-air missile developed as part of India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Program
to achieve self-sufficiency in the area of surface-to-air missiles.

Nag Missile

Nag is India’s third generation “Fire-and-forget” anti-tank missile. It is an all weather, top attack missile with a range of 3 to 7 km.

Shaurya Missile System

The Shaurya missile is a short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by DRDO for use by the Indian Army. Capable of hypersonic speeds, it has a range of 600 km and is capable of carrying a payload of one-tonne conventional or nuclear warhead.

1. The port number used by SMTP is:

25

2. A packet filter is a type of

Firewall

3. Which among the following utilities can detect a bad sector?

CHKDSK and SCANDISK

4. In 100BASE-T, ‘T’ stands for:

Twisted pair

5. A head crash is said to occur when the read-write head of a hard disk drive:

Touches the magnetic media

6. Category 5 cable includes —twisted pairs in a single cable jacket.

4

7. The port number used by the HTTP protocol is

80

8. In PowerPoint presentations, individual pages are called:

Slides

9. _________ is a powder used in laser printers to form the images on a paper.

Toner

10. Worms and Trojan Horses are examples of:

Malware

11. ___________ Printers work by selectively heating regions of special heat-sensitive paper.

Thermal

12.The ISI mark is given by:

BIS

13. The laser printer was invented at:

Xerox

14. A flaw in a system whereby the output is unexpectedly dependent on the sequence or timing of other events is called a:

Race condition

15. A 56k modem can transfer data at up to bits per second over the phone line.

56000

16. The original implementation of the C programming language was standardized by :

ANSI

17. ________Is a signaling method that handles a relatively wide range of frequencies.

Broadband

18. Power-on-self-test is built into the:

BIOS

19. PowerPoint can embed content from other applications through:

OLE

20. The latest release of Microsoft Windows is called:

Vista

21. GRUB is an:

Boot loader

22. __________Is a family of programmable interrupt controller chips.

8259

23.card allows television signals to be received by a computer.

TV tuner

24. ________Is an IEEE 1394 implementation.

Fire Wire

25 ‘Windows protection error’ messages may result from:

Damage to the system registry

26 Sound Blaster line of audio cards were made by :

Creative Technology Ltd.

27 Indiscriminate sending of unsolicited bulk messages is known as :

Spamming.

28. The ‘blue screen of death’ may occur due to:

All the above

29. FAT manages files in contiguous groups of sectors called:

Clusters

30. The utility which can be used to clean the windows registry is:

regedit